Covariance as inner product
$begingroup$
Why is covariance considered as inner product if there is no projection of one vector onto another?
Right now I perceive this as just a multiplication of $x$ segment of vector($x_i - bar{x}$) and $y$ segment($y_i - bar{y}$) of the same vector in order to understand direction of relationship.
statistics data-analysis
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Why is covariance considered as inner product if there is no projection of one vector onto another?
Right now I perceive this as just a multiplication of $x$ segment of vector($x_i - bar{x}$) and $y$ segment($y_i - bar{y}$) of the same vector in order to understand direction of relationship.
statistics data-analysis
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Why is covariance considered as inner product if there is no projection of one vector onto another?
Right now I perceive this as just a multiplication of $x$ segment of vector($x_i - bar{x}$) and $y$ segment($y_i - bar{y}$) of the same vector in order to understand direction of relationship.
statistics data-analysis
$endgroup$
Why is covariance considered as inner product if there is no projection of one vector onto another?
Right now I perceive this as just a multiplication of $x$ segment of vector($x_i - bar{x}$) and $y$ segment($y_i - bar{y}$) of the same vector in order to understand direction of relationship.
statistics data-analysis
statistics data-analysis
edited 6 hours ago
Stephen Rauch
1,52551330
1,52551330
asked 7 hours ago
user641597user641597
233
233
add a comment |
add a comment |
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