Proof involving the spectral radius and Jordan Canonical form












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Let $A$ be a square matrix. Show that if $lim_{n to infty} A^{n} = 0$, then $rho(A) < 1$. Hint: Use the Jordan Canonical form. Here, $rho(A)$ denotes the spectral radius of $A$.



I'm self-studying and have been working through a few linear algebra exercises. I'm struggling a bit in applying the hint to this problem -- I don't know where to start. Any help appreciated.






linear-algebra spectral-radius







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    $begingroup$


    Let $A$ be a square matrix. Show that if $lim_{n to infty} A^{n} = 0$, then $rho(A) < 1$. Hint: Use the Jordan Canonical form. Here, $rho(A)$ denotes the spectral radius of $A$.



    I'm self-studying and have been working through a few linear algebra exercises. I'm struggling a bit in applying the hint to this problem -- I don't know where to start. Any help appreciated.






    linear-algebra spectral-radius







    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Let $A$ be a square matrix. Show that if $lim_{n to infty} A^{n} = 0$, then $rho(A) < 1$. Hint: Use the Jordan Canonical form. Here, $rho(A)$ denotes the spectral radius of $A$.



      I'm self-studying and have been working through a few linear algebra exercises. I'm struggling a bit in applying the hint to this problem -- I don't know where to start. Any help appreciated.






      linear-algebra spectral-radius







      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $A$ be a square matrix. Show that if $lim_{n to infty} A^{n} = 0$, then $rho(A) < 1$. Hint: Use the Jordan Canonical form. Here, $rho(A)$ denotes the spectral radius of $A$.



      I'm self-studying and have been working through a few linear algebra exercises. I'm struggling a bit in applying the hint to this problem -- I don't know where to start. Any help appreciated.






      linear-algebra spectral-radius




      linear-algebra spectral-radius






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      asked 57 mins ago









      mXdXmXdX

      1018




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          2 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          You don't really need Jordan canonical form. If $rho(A) ge 1$, $A$ has an eigenvalue $lambda$ with $|lambda| ge 1$. That eigenvalue has an eigenvector $v$. Then $A^n v = lambda^n v$, so $|A^n v| = |lambda|^n |v| ge |v|$ does not go to $0$ as $n to infty$, which is impossible if $A^n to 0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            1












            $begingroup$

            Hint



            $$A=PJP^{-1} \
            J=begin{bmatrix}
            lambda_1 & * & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
            0& lambda_2 & * & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
            ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
            0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n \
            end{bmatrix}$$
            where each $*$ is either $0$ or $1$.



            Prove by induction that
            $$J^m=begin{bmatrix}
            lambda_1^m & star & star & star & star & ... & star \
            0& lambda_2^m & star & star & star & ... & star \
            ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
            0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n^m \
            end{bmatrix}$$
            where the $star$s represent numbers, that is $J^m$ is an upper triangular matrix
            with the $m$^th powers of the eigenvalues on the diagonal.



            Note The above claim for $J^m$ is not fully using that $J$ is a Jordan cannonical form. It only uses that $J$ is upper triangular.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              So, $A^{m} = PJ^{m}P^{-1}$. If I can show what you're asking by induction, would the limit of $J^{m} = 0$? I'm sure it is because the diagonal entries are less than one, right?
              $endgroup$
              – mXdX
              19 mins ago










            • $begingroup$
              @mXdX Well, that is the point. First $$lim_m J^m= lim_m P^{-1} A^m P =0$$ Now, since $lim J^m=0$ you can deduce that the diagonal entries converge to zero, meaning $lambda_j^m to 0$. This implies that $|lambda_j |<1$
              $endgroup$
              – N. S.
              15 mins ago










            • $begingroup$
              I understand now. Thanks. So I would have to show, like you said, that the diagonal entries of $J^{m}$ are the $m$th powers of the eigenvalues.
              $endgroup$
              – mXdX
              9 mins ago












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            2 Answers
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            $begingroup$

            You don't really need Jordan canonical form. If $rho(A) ge 1$, $A$ has an eigenvalue $lambda$ with $|lambda| ge 1$. That eigenvalue has an eigenvector $v$. Then $A^n v = lambda^n v$, so $|A^n v| = |lambda|^n |v| ge |v|$ does not go to $0$ as $n to infty$, which is impossible if $A^n to 0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              4












              $begingroup$

              You don't really need Jordan canonical form. If $rho(A) ge 1$, $A$ has an eigenvalue $lambda$ with $|lambda| ge 1$. That eigenvalue has an eigenvector $v$. Then $A^n v = lambda^n v$, so $|A^n v| = |lambda|^n |v| ge |v|$ does not go to $0$ as $n to infty$, which is impossible if $A^n to 0$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                4












                4








                4





                $begingroup$

                You don't really need Jordan canonical form. If $rho(A) ge 1$, $A$ has an eigenvalue $lambda$ with $|lambda| ge 1$. That eigenvalue has an eigenvector $v$. Then $A^n v = lambda^n v$, so $|A^n v| = |lambda|^n |v| ge |v|$ does not go to $0$ as $n to infty$, which is impossible if $A^n to 0$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                You don't really need Jordan canonical form. If $rho(A) ge 1$, $A$ has an eigenvalue $lambda$ with $|lambda| ge 1$. That eigenvalue has an eigenvector $v$. Then $A^n v = lambda^n v$, so $|A^n v| = |lambda|^n |v| ge |v|$ does not go to $0$ as $n to infty$, which is impossible if $A^n to 0$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered 26 mins ago









                Robert IsraelRobert Israel

                332k23221478




                332k23221478























                    1












                    $begingroup$

                    Hint



                    $$A=PJP^{-1} \
                    J=begin{bmatrix}
                    lambda_1 & * & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
                    0& lambda_2 & * & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
                    ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
                    0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n \
                    end{bmatrix}$$
                    where each $*$ is either $0$ or $1$.



                    Prove by induction that
                    $$J^m=begin{bmatrix}
                    lambda_1^m & star & star & star & star & ... & star \
                    0& lambda_2^m & star & star & star & ... & star \
                    ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
                    0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n^m \
                    end{bmatrix}$$
                    where the $star$s represent numbers, that is $J^m$ is an upper triangular matrix
                    with the $m$^th powers of the eigenvalues on the diagonal.



                    Note The above claim for $J^m$ is not fully using that $J$ is a Jordan cannonical form. It only uses that $J$ is upper triangular.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      So, $A^{m} = PJ^{m}P^{-1}$. If I can show what you're asking by induction, would the limit of $J^{m} = 0$? I'm sure it is because the diagonal entries are less than one, right?
                      $endgroup$
                      – mXdX
                      19 mins ago










                    • $begingroup$
                      @mXdX Well, that is the point. First $$lim_m J^m= lim_m P^{-1} A^m P =0$$ Now, since $lim J^m=0$ you can deduce that the diagonal entries converge to zero, meaning $lambda_j^m to 0$. This implies that $|lambda_j |<1$
                      $endgroup$
                      – N. S.
                      15 mins ago










                    • $begingroup$
                      I understand now. Thanks. So I would have to show, like you said, that the diagonal entries of $J^{m}$ are the $m$th powers of the eigenvalues.
                      $endgroup$
                      – mXdX
                      9 mins ago
















                    1












                    $begingroup$

                    Hint



                    $$A=PJP^{-1} \
                    J=begin{bmatrix}
                    lambda_1 & * & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
                    0& lambda_2 & * & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
                    ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
                    0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n \
                    end{bmatrix}$$
                    where each $*$ is either $0$ or $1$.



                    Prove by induction that
                    $$J^m=begin{bmatrix}
                    lambda_1^m & star & star & star & star & ... & star \
                    0& lambda_2^m & star & star & star & ... & star \
                    ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
                    0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n^m \
                    end{bmatrix}$$
                    where the $star$s represent numbers, that is $J^m$ is an upper triangular matrix
                    with the $m$^th powers of the eigenvalues on the diagonal.



                    Note The above claim for $J^m$ is not fully using that $J$ is a Jordan cannonical form. It only uses that $J$ is upper triangular.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      So, $A^{m} = PJ^{m}P^{-1}$. If I can show what you're asking by induction, would the limit of $J^{m} = 0$? I'm sure it is because the diagonal entries are less than one, right?
                      $endgroup$
                      – mXdX
                      19 mins ago










                    • $begingroup$
                      @mXdX Well, that is the point. First $$lim_m J^m= lim_m P^{-1} A^m P =0$$ Now, since $lim J^m=0$ you can deduce that the diagonal entries converge to zero, meaning $lambda_j^m to 0$. This implies that $|lambda_j |<1$
                      $endgroup$
                      – N. S.
                      15 mins ago










                    • $begingroup$
                      I understand now. Thanks. So I would have to show, like you said, that the diagonal entries of $J^{m}$ are the $m$th powers of the eigenvalues.
                      $endgroup$
                      – mXdX
                      9 mins ago














                    1












                    1








                    1





                    $begingroup$

                    Hint



                    $$A=PJP^{-1} \
                    J=begin{bmatrix}
                    lambda_1 & * & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
                    0& lambda_2 & * & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
                    ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
                    0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n \
                    end{bmatrix}$$
                    where each $*$ is either $0$ or $1$.



                    Prove by induction that
                    $$J^m=begin{bmatrix}
                    lambda_1^m & star & star & star & star & ... & star \
                    0& lambda_2^m & star & star & star & ... & star \
                    ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
                    0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n^m \
                    end{bmatrix}$$
                    where the $star$s represent numbers, that is $J^m$ is an upper triangular matrix
                    with the $m$^th powers of the eigenvalues on the diagonal.



                    Note The above claim for $J^m$ is not fully using that $J$ is a Jordan cannonical form. It only uses that $J$ is upper triangular.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    Hint



                    $$A=PJP^{-1} \
                    J=begin{bmatrix}
                    lambda_1 & * & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
                    0& lambda_2 & * & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
                    ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
                    0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n \
                    end{bmatrix}$$
                    where each $*$ is either $0$ or $1$.



                    Prove by induction that
                    $$J^m=begin{bmatrix}
                    lambda_1^m & star & star & star & star & ... & star \
                    0& lambda_2^m & star & star & star & ... & star \
                    ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
                    0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n^m \
                    end{bmatrix}$$
                    where the $star$s represent numbers, that is $J^m$ is an upper triangular matrix
                    with the $m$^th powers of the eigenvalues on the diagonal.



                    Note The above claim for $J^m$ is not fully using that $J$ is a Jordan cannonical form. It only uses that $J$ is upper triangular.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered 41 mins ago









                    N. S.N. S.

                    105k7115210




                    105k7115210












                    • $begingroup$
                      So, $A^{m} = PJ^{m}P^{-1}$. If I can show what you're asking by induction, would the limit of $J^{m} = 0$? I'm sure it is because the diagonal entries are less than one, right?
                      $endgroup$
                      – mXdX
                      19 mins ago










                    • $begingroup$
                      @mXdX Well, that is the point. First $$lim_m J^m= lim_m P^{-1} A^m P =0$$ Now, since $lim J^m=0$ you can deduce that the diagonal entries converge to zero, meaning $lambda_j^m to 0$. This implies that $|lambda_j |<1$
                      $endgroup$
                      – N. S.
                      15 mins ago










                    • $begingroup$
                      I understand now. Thanks. So I would have to show, like you said, that the diagonal entries of $J^{m}$ are the $m$th powers of the eigenvalues.
                      $endgroup$
                      – mXdX
                      9 mins ago


















                    • $begingroup$
                      So, $A^{m} = PJ^{m}P^{-1}$. If I can show what you're asking by induction, would the limit of $J^{m} = 0$? I'm sure it is because the diagonal entries are less than one, right?
                      $endgroup$
                      – mXdX
                      19 mins ago










                    • $begingroup$
                      @mXdX Well, that is the point. First $$lim_m J^m= lim_m P^{-1} A^m P =0$$ Now, since $lim J^m=0$ you can deduce that the diagonal entries converge to zero, meaning $lambda_j^m to 0$. This implies that $|lambda_j |<1$
                      $endgroup$
                      – N. S.
                      15 mins ago










                    • $begingroup$
                      I understand now. Thanks. So I would have to show, like you said, that the diagonal entries of $J^{m}$ are the $m$th powers of the eigenvalues.
                      $endgroup$
                      – mXdX
                      9 mins ago
















                    $begingroup$
                    So, $A^{m} = PJ^{m}P^{-1}$. If I can show what you're asking by induction, would the limit of $J^{m} = 0$? I'm sure it is because the diagonal entries are less than one, right?
                    $endgroup$
                    – mXdX
                    19 mins ago




                    $begingroup$
                    So, $A^{m} = PJ^{m}P^{-1}$. If I can show what you're asking by induction, would the limit of $J^{m} = 0$? I'm sure it is because the diagonal entries are less than one, right?
                    $endgroup$
                    – mXdX
                    19 mins ago












                    $begingroup$
                    @mXdX Well, that is the point. First $$lim_m J^m= lim_m P^{-1} A^m P =0$$ Now, since $lim J^m=0$ you can deduce that the diagonal entries converge to zero, meaning $lambda_j^m to 0$. This implies that $|lambda_j |<1$
                    $endgroup$
                    – N. S.
                    15 mins ago




                    $begingroup$
                    @mXdX Well, that is the point. First $$lim_m J^m= lim_m P^{-1} A^m P =0$$ Now, since $lim J^m=0$ you can deduce that the diagonal entries converge to zero, meaning $lambda_j^m to 0$. This implies that $|lambda_j |<1$
                    $endgroup$
                    – N. S.
                    15 mins ago












                    $begingroup$
                    I understand now. Thanks. So I would have to show, like you said, that the diagonal entries of $J^{m}$ are the $m$th powers of the eigenvalues.
                    $endgroup$
                    – mXdX
                    9 mins ago




                    $begingroup$
                    I understand now. Thanks. So I would have to show, like you said, that the diagonal entries of $J^{m}$ are the $m$th powers of the eigenvalues.
                    $endgroup$
                    – mXdX
                    9 mins ago


















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