Convergence of this particular series












1












$begingroup$


Let $a_1=1 $ and $ a_n=2-frac 1n$ for $ngeq 2$. Then $$sum_{n=1}^inftybigg(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}bigg)$$
converges to?




I started by expanding the sum:



$sum_{n=1}^inftybigg(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}bigg)=bigg(frac{1}{a_1^2}-frac{1}{a_2^2}bigg)+bigg(frac{1}{a_2^2}-frac{1}{a_3^2}bigg)+bigg(frac{1}{a_3^2}-frac{1}{a_4^2}bigg)+ldots$



$=frac{1}{a_1^2}+bigg(-frac{1}{a_2^2}+frac{1}{a_2^2}bigg)+bigg(-frac{1}{a_3^2}+frac{1}{a_3^2}bigg)+bigg(-frac{1}{a_4^2}+frac{1}{a_4^2}bigg)+ldots$



$=frac{1}{a_1^2}$



$=1$




Now, the strange part is that the answer to this question is known to me as $0.75$. Is there something wrong with what I did? How does one arrive at $0.75$ as a solution?



PS: I am aware that infinite sums can behave in strange ways, and sometimes more than one solution may follow logically. Is this one such case?






sequences-and-series convergence







share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    Let $a_1=1 $ and $ a_n=2-frac 1n$ for $ngeq 2$. Then $$sum_{n=1}^inftybigg(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}bigg)$$
    converges to?




    I started by expanding the sum:



    $sum_{n=1}^inftybigg(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}bigg)=bigg(frac{1}{a_1^2}-frac{1}{a_2^2}bigg)+bigg(frac{1}{a_2^2}-frac{1}{a_3^2}bigg)+bigg(frac{1}{a_3^2}-frac{1}{a_4^2}bigg)+ldots$



    $=frac{1}{a_1^2}+bigg(-frac{1}{a_2^2}+frac{1}{a_2^2}bigg)+bigg(-frac{1}{a_3^2}+frac{1}{a_3^2}bigg)+bigg(-frac{1}{a_4^2}+frac{1}{a_4^2}bigg)+ldots$



    $=frac{1}{a_1^2}$



    $=1$




    Now, the strange part is that the answer to this question is known to me as $0.75$. Is there something wrong with what I did? How does one arrive at $0.75$ as a solution?



    PS: I am aware that infinite sums can behave in strange ways, and sometimes more than one solution may follow logically. Is this one such case?






    sequences-and-series convergence







    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Let $a_1=1 $ and $ a_n=2-frac 1n$ for $ngeq 2$. Then $$sum_{n=1}^inftybigg(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}bigg)$$
      converges to?




      I started by expanding the sum:



      $sum_{n=1}^inftybigg(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}bigg)=bigg(frac{1}{a_1^2}-frac{1}{a_2^2}bigg)+bigg(frac{1}{a_2^2}-frac{1}{a_3^2}bigg)+bigg(frac{1}{a_3^2}-frac{1}{a_4^2}bigg)+ldots$



      $=frac{1}{a_1^2}+bigg(-frac{1}{a_2^2}+frac{1}{a_2^2}bigg)+bigg(-frac{1}{a_3^2}+frac{1}{a_3^2}bigg)+bigg(-frac{1}{a_4^2}+frac{1}{a_4^2}bigg)+ldots$



      $=frac{1}{a_1^2}$



      $=1$




      Now, the strange part is that the answer to this question is known to me as $0.75$. Is there something wrong with what I did? How does one arrive at $0.75$ as a solution?



      PS: I am aware that infinite sums can behave in strange ways, and sometimes more than one solution may follow logically. Is this one such case?






      sequences-and-series convergence







      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $a_1=1 $ and $ a_n=2-frac 1n$ for $ngeq 2$. Then $$sum_{n=1}^inftybigg(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}bigg)$$
      converges to?




      I started by expanding the sum:



      $sum_{n=1}^inftybigg(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}bigg)=bigg(frac{1}{a_1^2}-frac{1}{a_2^2}bigg)+bigg(frac{1}{a_2^2}-frac{1}{a_3^2}bigg)+bigg(frac{1}{a_3^2}-frac{1}{a_4^2}bigg)+ldots$



      $=frac{1}{a_1^2}+bigg(-frac{1}{a_2^2}+frac{1}{a_2^2}bigg)+bigg(-frac{1}{a_3^2}+frac{1}{a_3^2}bigg)+bigg(-frac{1}{a_4^2}+frac{1}{a_4^2}bigg)+ldots$



      $=frac{1}{a_1^2}$



      $=1$




      Now, the strange part is that the answer to this question is known to me as $0.75$. Is there something wrong with what I did? How does one arrive at $0.75$ as a solution?



      PS: I am aware that infinite sums can behave in strange ways, and sometimes more than one solution may follow logically. Is this one such case?






      sequences-and-series convergence




      sequences-and-series convergence






      share|cite|improve this question













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      asked 38 mins ago









      s0ulr3aper07s0ulr3aper07

      3069




      3069






















          3 Answers
          3






          active

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          2












          $begingroup$

          Let $$S_N=sum_{n=1}^Nleft(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}right)=frac{1}{a_1^2}-frac{1}{a_{N+1}^2}.$$
          Since $a_1=1$ and $a_nto 2$, we have
          $$lim_{Ntoinfty}S_N=1-frac{1}{2^2}=frac{3}{4}.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            1












            $begingroup$

            $a_n$ does not approach zero,
            so the end term can not
            be disregarded.



            In other words,
            the sum up to $n$ is
            $frac1{a_1^2}
            -frac1{a_n^2}
            to 1-frac14
            =frac34
            $            .






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$





















              1












              $begingroup$


              Infinite sums can behave in strange ways




              True!




              Sometimes more than one solution may follow logically




              Definitely not true. There is one answer in every case (as long as you allow "the sum diverges" as an answer). Sure, there are subtle errors which may make it appear that a sum has more than one value, but that's exactly what they are - errors.



              To avoid these errors, don't manipulate infinite sums unless you have a conclusive proof that the manipulation is justified. If you don't, go back to the definition. In your case this says
              $$eqalign{sum_{n=1}^inftybigg(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}bigg)
              &=lim_{Ntoinfty}sum_{n=1}^Nbigg(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}bigg)cr
              &=lim_{Ntoinfty}biggl(frac{1}{a_1^2}-frac{1}{a_{N+1}^2}biggr) .cr}$$
              See if you can finish the job from here.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                I stated that more than one solution may follow logically because of Grandi's series where 0, 1, and half are possible answers. Although, I suppose you could simply call the series divergent and completely avoid the controversy altogether.
                $endgroup$
                – s0ulr3aper07
                3 mins ago











              Your Answer





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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes








              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

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              active

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              active

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              2












              $begingroup$

              Let $$S_N=sum_{n=1}^Nleft(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}right)=frac{1}{a_1^2}-frac{1}{a_{N+1}^2}.$$
              Since $a_1=1$ and $a_nto 2$, we have
              $$lim_{Ntoinfty}S_N=1-frac{1}{2^2}=frac{3}{4}.$$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                2












                $begingroup$

                Let $$S_N=sum_{n=1}^Nleft(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}right)=frac{1}{a_1^2}-frac{1}{a_{N+1}^2}.$$
                Since $a_1=1$ and $a_nto 2$, we have
                $$lim_{Ntoinfty}S_N=1-frac{1}{2^2}=frac{3}{4}.$$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  Let $$S_N=sum_{n=1}^Nleft(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}right)=frac{1}{a_1^2}-frac{1}{a_{N+1}^2}.$$
                  Since $a_1=1$ and $a_nto 2$, we have
                  $$lim_{Ntoinfty}S_N=1-frac{1}{2^2}=frac{3}{4}.$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Let $$S_N=sum_{n=1}^Nleft(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}right)=frac{1}{a_1^2}-frac{1}{a_{N+1}^2}.$$
                  Since $a_1=1$ and $a_nto 2$, we have
                  $$lim_{Ntoinfty}S_N=1-frac{1}{2^2}=frac{3}{4}.$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 32 mins ago









                  Eclipse SunEclipse Sun

                  7,3841437




                  7,3841437























                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      $a_n$ does not approach zero,
                      so the end term can not
                      be disregarded.



                      In other words,
                      the sum up to $n$ is
                      $frac1{a_1^2}
                      -frac1{a_n^2}
                      to 1-frac14
                      =frac34
                      $                      .






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        $a_n$ does not approach zero,
                        so the end term can not
                        be disregarded.



                        In other words,
                        the sum up to $n$ is
                        $frac1{a_1^2}
                        -frac1{a_n^2}
                        to 1-frac14
                        =frac34
                        $                        .






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          1












                          1








                          1





                          $begingroup$

                          $a_n$ does not approach zero,
                          so the end term can not
                          be disregarded.



                          In other words,
                          the sum up to $n$ is
                          $frac1{a_1^2}
                          -frac1{a_n^2}
                          to 1-frac14
                          =frac34
                          $                          .






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          $a_n$ does not approach zero,
                          so the end term can not
                          be disregarded.



                          In other words,
                          the sum up to $n$ is
                          $frac1{a_1^2}
                          -frac1{a_n^2}
                          to 1-frac14
                          =frac34
                          $                          .







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered 29 mins ago









                          marty cohenmarty cohen

                          73.4k549128




                          73.4k549128























                              1












                              $begingroup$


                              Infinite sums can behave in strange ways




                              True!




                              Sometimes more than one solution may follow logically




                              Definitely not true. There is one answer in every case (as long as you allow "the sum diverges" as an answer). Sure, there are subtle errors which may make it appear that a sum has more than one value, but that's exactly what they are - errors.



                              To avoid these errors, don't manipulate infinite sums unless you have a conclusive proof that the manipulation is justified. If you don't, go back to the definition. In your case this says
                              $$eqalign{sum_{n=1}^inftybigg(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}bigg)
                              &=lim_{Ntoinfty}sum_{n=1}^Nbigg(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}bigg)cr
                              &=lim_{Ntoinfty}biggl(frac{1}{a_1^2}-frac{1}{a_{N+1}^2}biggr) .cr}$$
                              See if you can finish the job from here.






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$













                              • $begingroup$
                                I stated that more than one solution may follow logically because of Grandi's series where 0, 1, and half are possible answers. Although, I suppose you could simply call the series divergent and completely avoid the controversy altogether.
                                $endgroup$
                                – s0ulr3aper07
                                3 mins ago
















                              1












                              $begingroup$


                              Infinite sums can behave in strange ways




                              True!




                              Sometimes more than one solution may follow logically




                              Definitely not true. There is one answer in every case (as long as you allow "the sum diverges" as an answer). Sure, there are subtle errors which may make it appear that a sum has more than one value, but that's exactly what they are - errors.



                              To avoid these errors, don't manipulate infinite sums unless you have a conclusive proof that the manipulation is justified. If you don't, go back to the definition. In your case this says
                              $$eqalign{sum_{n=1}^inftybigg(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}bigg)
                              &=lim_{Ntoinfty}sum_{n=1}^Nbigg(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}bigg)cr
                              &=lim_{Ntoinfty}biggl(frac{1}{a_1^2}-frac{1}{a_{N+1}^2}biggr) .cr}$$
                              See if you can finish the job from here.






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$













                              • $begingroup$
                                I stated that more than one solution may follow logically because of Grandi's series where 0, 1, and half are possible answers. Although, I suppose you could simply call the series divergent and completely avoid the controversy altogether.
                                $endgroup$
                                – s0ulr3aper07
                                3 mins ago














                              1












                              1








                              1





                              $begingroup$


                              Infinite sums can behave in strange ways




                              True!




                              Sometimes more than one solution may follow logically




                              Definitely not true. There is one answer in every case (as long as you allow "the sum diverges" as an answer). Sure, there are subtle errors which may make it appear that a sum has more than one value, but that's exactly what they are - errors.



                              To avoid these errors, don't manipulate infinite sums unless you have a conclusive proof that the manipulation is justified. If you don't, go back to the definition. In your case this says
                              $$eqalign{sum_{n=1}^inftybigg(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}bigg)
                              &=lim_{Ntoinfty}sum_{n=1}^Nbigg(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}bigg)cr
                              &=lim_{Ntoinfty}biggl(frac{1}{a_1^2}-frac{1}{a_{N+1}^2}biggr) .cr}$$
                              See if you can finish the job from here.






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$




                              Infinite sums can behave in strange ways




                              True!




                              Sometimes more than one solution may follow logically




                              Definitely not true. There is one answer in every case (as long as you allow "the sum diverges" as an answer). Sure, there are subtle errors which may make it appear that a sum has more than one value, but that's exactly what they are - errors.



                              To avoid these errors, don't manipulate infinite sums unless you have a conclusive proof that the manipulation is justified. If you don't, go back to the definition. In your case this says
                              $$eqalign{sum_{n=1}^inftybigg(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}bigg)
                              &=lim_{Ntoinfty}sum_{n=1}^Nbigg(frac{1}{a_n^2}-frac{1}{a_{n+1}^2}bigg)cr
                              &=lim_{Ntoinfty}biggl(frac{1}{a_1^2}-frac{1}{a_{N+1}^2}biggr) .cr}$$
                              See if you can finish the job from here.







                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer










                              answered 29 mins ago









                              DavidDavid

                              68.1k664126




                              68.1k664126












                              • $begingroup$
                                I stated that more than one solution may follow logically because of Grandi's series where 0, 1, and half are possible answers. Although, I suppose you could simply call the series divergent and completely avoid the controversy altogether.
                                $endgroup$
                                – s0ulr3aper07
                                3 mins ago


















                              • $begingroup$
                                I stated that more than one solution may follow logically because of Grandi's series where 0, 1, and half are possible answers. Although, I suppose you could simply call the series divergent and completely avoid the controversy altogether.
                                $endgroup$
                                – s0ulr3aper07
                                3 mins ago
















                              $begingroup$
                              I stated that more than one solution may follow logically because of Grandi's series where 0, 1, and half are possible answers. Although, I suppose you could simply call the series divergent and completely avoid the controversy altogether.
                              $endgroup$
                              – s0ulr3aper07
                              3 mins ago




                              $begingroup$
                              I stated that more than one solution may follow logically because of Grandi's series where 0, 1, and half are possible answers. Although, I suppose you could simply call the series divergent and completely avoid the controversy altogether.
                              $endgroup$
                              – s0ulr3aper07
                              3 mins ago


















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