Is calling The LORD as “Father” common during Jesus time?












4















Most of the time on what I hear from some Christian friends that the "Father" calling to The LORD is founded by Jesus.



Because I find it odd (if Jesus is the first person who start calling The LORD as "Father"), so I looked into the Old Testament and found that there are several verses which call "Father" to The LORD.



I would like to know whether this calling (for example maybe in a prayer) still commonly used during Jesus time (or at least a few years before Jesus was born).



To be honest, I want to make a conclusion that if it's already common during Jesus time - then I think Jesus is just following the tradition to call The LORD as "Father". Not as the Trinitarian think that Jesus is praying to the First Person of The Trinitarian Godhead, not to himself (as the Trinitarian say that Jesus is the 2nd Person), not to the Holy Spirit (as the Trinitarian say that The Holy Spirit is the 3rd Person).



Thank you.










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  • Hello -- this question requires understanding the nature of formalized prayer 2000 years ago. I would suggest looking at this question judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/86749/… That being said, the mishna (Masechet Sotah), which some Jews see as predating the common era, uses the phrase "Aviinu Shebashamayim" - our father who is in heaven, 3 times.

    – rosends
    2 hours ago













  • @rosends, thank you for your suggestion. I will look into it.

    – karma
    1 hour ago
















4















Most of the time on what I hear from some Christian friends that the "Father" calling to The LORD is founded by Jesus.



Because I find it odd (if Jesus is the first person who start calling The LORD as "Father"), so I looked into the Old Testament and found that there are several verses which call "Father" to The LORD.



I would like to know whether this calling (for example maybe in a prayer) still commonly used during Jesus time (or at least a few years before Jesus was born).



To be honest, I want to make a conclusion that if it's already common during Jesus time - then I think Jesus is just following the tradition to call The LORD as "Father". Not as the Trinitarian think that Jesus is praying to the First Person of The Trinitarian Godhead, not to himself (as the Trinitarian say that Jesus is the 2nd Person), not to the Holy Spirit (as the Trinitarian say that The Holy Spirit is the 3rd Person).



Thank you.










share|improve this question























  • Hello -- this question requires understanding the nature of formalized prayer 2000 years ago. I would suggest looking at this question judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/86749/… That being said, the mishna (Masechet Sotah), which some Jews see as predating the common era, uses the phrase "Aviinu Shebashamayim" - our father who is in heaven, 3 times.

    – rosends
    2 hours ago













  • @rosends, thank you for your suggestion. I will look into it.

    – karma
    1 hour ago














4












4








4


1






Most of the time on what I hear from some Christian friends that the "Father" calling to The LORD is founded by Jesus.



Because I find it odd (if Jesus is the first person who start calling The LORD as "Father"), so I looked into the Old Testament and found that there are several verses which call "Father" to The LORD.



I would like to know whether this calling (for example maybe in a prayer) still commonly used during Jesus time (or at least a few years before Jesus was born).



To be honest, I want to make a conclusion that if it's already common during Jesus time - then I think Jesus is just following the tradition to call The LORD as "Father". Not as the Trinitarian think that Jesus is praying to the First Person of The Trinitarian Godhead, not to himself (as the Trinitarian say that Jesus is the 2nd Person), not to the Holy Spirit (as the Trinitarian say that The Holy Spirit is the 3rd Person).



Thank you.










share|improve this question














Most of the time on what I hear from some Christian friends that the "Father" calling to The LORD is founded by Jesus.



Because I find it odd (if Jesus is the first person who start calling The LORD as "Father"), so I looked into the Old Testament and found that there are several verses which call "Father" to The LORD.



I would like to know whether this calling (for example maybe in a prayer) still commonly used during Jesus time (or at least a few years before Jesus was born).



To be honest, I want to make a conclusion that if it's already common during Jesus time - then I think Jesus is just following the tradition to call The LORD as "Father". Not as the Trinitarian think that Jesus is praying to the First Person of The Trinitarian Godhead, not to himself (as the Trinitarian say that Jesus is the 2nd Person), not to the Holy Spirit (as the Trinitarian say that The Holy Spirit is the 3rd Person).



Thank you.







theology christianity






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asked 2 hours ago









karmakarma

1534




1534













  • Hello -- this question requires understanding the nature of formalized prayer 2000 years ago. I would suggest looking at this question judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/86749/… That being said, the mishna (Masechet Sotah), which some Jews see as predating the common era, uses the phrase "Aviinu Shebashamayim" - our father who is in heaven, 3 times.

    – rosends
    2 hours ago













  • @rosends, thank you for your suggestion. I will look into it.

    – karma
    1 hour ago



















  • Hello -- this question requires understanding the nature of formalized prayer 2000 years ago. I would suggest looking at this question judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/86749/… That being said, the mishna (Masechet Sotah), which some Jews see as predating the common era, uses the phrase "Aviinu Shebashamayim" - our father who is in heaven, 3 times.

    – rosends
    2 hours ago













  • @rosends, thank you for your suggestion. I will look into it.

    – karma
    1 hour ago

















Hello -- this question requires understanding the nature of formalized prayer 2000 years ago. I would suggest looking at this question judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/86749/… That being said, the mishna (Masechet Sotah), which some Jews see as predating the common era, uses the phrase "Aviinu Shebashamayim" - our father who is in heaven, 3 times.

– rosends
2 hours ago







Hello -- this question requires understanding the nature of formalized prayer 2000 years ago. I would suggest looking at this question judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/86749/… That being said, the mishna (Masechet Sotah), which some Jews see as predating the common era, uses the phrase "Aviinu Shebashamayim" - our father who is in heaven, 3 times.

– rosends
2 hours ago















@rosends, thank you for your suggestion. I will look into it.

– karma
1 hour ago





@rosends, thank you for your suggestion. I will look into it.

– karma
1 hour ago










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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5














The expression "Our father in heaven" (אבינו שבשמים) is a relatively common name for God in rabbinic literature (as far as I am aware, this formulation does not appear in the Bible). For example, see Mishnah Sotah 9:5. Typically in rabbinic literature, the description of God as a father uses this particular formulation exactly and certainly seems more metaphorical than literal.



Other examples can be found in an interesting scholarly article here discussing essentially the question you have asked here. The article's conclusion is that the references attributed to Jesus describing God as a "father" are essentially similar to contemporary rabbinic usage, although perhaps slightly different in that the "father" role is portrayed more actively in Jesus's usage. Nonetheless, as your question hints, modern Jewish and Christian theology treat the concept of God's "fatherhood" extremely differently. As the article states:




While a common theological ground is recognized, the Christian understanding of divine fatherhood in relation to Jesus, rather than as a universal metaphor, is deeply at odds with the Jewish understanding, expressed in the Hebrew Bible and in rabbinic literature.







share|improve this answer



















  • 1





    Thank you for the answer, Daniel. And thank you also for the link. I will look into it.

    – karma
    1 hour ago





















1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









5














The expression "Our father in heaven" (אבינו שבשמים) is a relatively common name for God in rabbinic literature (as far as I am aware, this formulation does not appear in the Bible). For example, see Mishnah Sotah 9:5. Typically in rabbinic literature, the description of God as a father uses this particular formulation exactly and certainly seems more metaphorical than literal.



Other examples can be found in an interesting scholarly article here discussing essentially the question you have asked here. The article's conclusion is that the references attributed to Jesus describing God as a "father" are essentially similar to contemporary rabbinic usage, although perhaps slightly different in that the "father" role is portrayed more actively in Jesus's usage. Nonetheless, as your question hints, modern Jewish and Christian theology treat the concept of God's "fatherhood" extremely differently. As the article states:




While a common theological ground is recognized, the Christian understanding of divine fatherhood in relation to Jesus, rather than as a universal metaphor, is deeply at odds with the Jewish understanding, expressed in the Hebrew Bible and in rabbinic literature.







share|improve this answer



















  • 1





    Thank you for the answer, Daniel. And thank you also for the link. I will look into it.

    – karma
    1 hour ago


















5














The expression "Our father in heaven" (אבינו שבשמים) is a relatively common name for God in rabbinic literature (as far as I am aware, this formulation does not appear in the Bible). For example, see Mishnah Sotah 9:5. Typically in rabbinic literature, the description of God as a father uses this particular formulation exactly and certainly seems more metaphorical than literal.



Other examples can be found in an interesting scholarly article here discussing essentially the question you have asked here. The article's conclusion is that the references attributed to Jesus describing God as a "father" are essentially similar to contemporary rabbinic usage, although perhaps slightly different in that the "father" role is portrayed more actively in Jesus's usage. Nonetheless, as your question hints, modern Jewish and Christian theology treat the concept of God's "fatherhood" extremely differently. As the article states:




While a common theological ground is recognized, the Christian understanding of divine fatherhood in relation to Jesus, rather than as a universal metaphor, is deeply at odds with the Jewish understanding, expressed in the Hebrew Bible and in rabbinic literature.







share|improve this answer



















  • 1





    Thank you for the answer, Daniel. And thank you also for the link. I will look into it.

    – karma
    1 hour ago
















5












5








5







The expression "Our father in heaven" (אבינו שבשמים) is a relatively common name for God in rabbinic literature (as far as I am aware, this formulation does not appear in the Bible). For example, see Mishnah Sotah 9:5. Typically in rabbinic literature, the description of God as a father uses this particular formulation exactly and certainly seems more metaphorical than literal.



Other examples can be found in an interesting scholarly article here discussing essentially the question you have asked here. The article's conclusion is that the references attributed to Jesus describing God as a "father" are essentially similar to contemporary rabbinic usage, although perhaps slightly different in that the "father" role is portrayed more actively in Jesus's usage. Nonetheless, as your question hints, modern Jewish and Christian theology treat the concept of God's "fatherhood" extremely differently. As the article states:




While a common theological ground is recognized, the Christian understanding of divine fatherhood in relation to Jesus, rather than as a universal metaphor, is deeply at odds with the Jewish understanding, expressed in the Hebrew Bible and in rabbinic literature.







share|improve this answer













The expression "Our father in heaven" (אבינו שבשמים) is a relatively common name for God in rabbinic literature (as far as I am aware, this formulation does not appear in the Bible). For example, see Mishnah Sotah 9:5. Typically in rabbinic literature, the description of God as a father uses this particular formulation exactly and certainly seems more metaphorical than literal.



Other examples can be found in an interesting scholarly article here discussing essentially the question you have asked here. The article's conclusion is that the references attributed to Jesus describing God as a "father" are essentially similar to contemporary rabbinic usage, although perhaps slightly different in that the "father" role is portrayed more actively in Jesus's usage. Nonetheless, as your question hints, modern Jewish and Christian theology treat the concept of God's "fatherhood" extremely differently. As the article states:




While a common theological ground is recognized, the Christian understanding of divine fatherhood in relation to Jesus, rather than as a universal metaphor, is deeply at odds with the Jewish understanding, expressed in the Hebrew Bible and in rabbinic literature.








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answered 2 hours ago









DanielDaniel

14.8k230106




14.8k230106








  • 1





    Thank you for the answer, Daniel. And thank you also for the link. I will look into it.

    – karma
    1 hour ago
















  • 1





    Thank you for the answer, Daniel. And thank you also for the link. I will look into it.

    – karma
    1 hour ago










1




1





Thank you for the answer, Daniel. And thank you also for the link. I will look into it.

– karma
1 hour ago







Thank you for the answer, Daniel. And thank you also for the link. I will look into it.

– karma
1 hour ago





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