Convergence to a fixed point












3












$begingroup$


Let $f : [a,b] rightarrow [a,b]$ be a continuous function s.t. $f'(x)$ is defined on $(a,b)$ and $leftlvert f'(x)rightrvert leqq t$ where $0<t<1$. Prove that for any point $x_0$ in $[a,b]$ the sequence defined by $$ x_n=f(x_{n-1}), n>0$$
converges to one unique fixed point.



Attempt:
Frankly, I have struggled to make a real attempt due to the fact that I can't find notes relating to this.



Obviously, I am assuming that there exists $x$ in$ [a,b]$ s.t. $f(x)=x$ but how do I relate the sequence to this $x$?



I'm strictly not allowed to assume Banach's theorem in this question, nor the Cauchy sequence because they come up on the second part of the course. I rather have to PROVE this.






analysis convergence numerical-methods fixed-point-theorems fixedpoints







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  • $begingroup$
    Another related question.
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_{n+1}$.
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    4 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer.
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    2 hours ago


















3












$begingroup$


Let $f : [a,b] rightarrow [a,b]$ be a continuous function s.t. $f'(x)$ is defined on $(a,b)$ and $leftlvert f'(x)rightrvert leqq t$ where $0<t<1$. Prove that for any point $x_0$ in $[a,b]$ the sequence defined by $$ x_n=f(x_{n-1}), n>0$$
converges to one unique fixed point.



Attempt:
Frankly, I have struggled to make a real attempt due to the fact that I can't find notes relating to this.



Obviously, I am assuming that there exists $x$ in$ [a,b]$ s.t. $f(x)=x$ but how do I relate the sequence to this $x$?



I'm strictly not allowed to assume Banach's theorem in this question, nor the Cauchy sequence because they come up on the second part of the course. I rather have to PROVE this.






analysis convergence numerical-methods fixed-point-theorems fixedpoints







share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Grace is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Another related question.
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_{n+1}$.
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    4 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer.
    $endgroup$
    – dantopa
    2 hours ago
















3












3








3





$begingroup$


Let $f : [a,b] rightarrow [a,b]$ be a continuous function s.t. $f'(x)$ is defined on $(a,b)$ and $leftlvert f'(x)rightrvert leqq t$ where $0<t<1$. Prove that for any point $x_0$ in $[a,b]$ the sequence defined by $$ x_n=f(x_{n-1}), n>0$$
converges to one unique fixed point.



Attempt:
Frankly, I have struggled to make a real attempt due to the fact that I can't find notes relating to this.



Obviously, I am assuming that there exists $x$ in$ [a,b]$ s.t. $f(x)=x$ but how do I relate the sequence to this $x$?



I'm strictly not allowed to assume Banach's theorem in this question, nor the Cauchy sequence because they come up on the second part of the course. I rather have to PROVE this.






analysis convergence numerical-methods fixed-point-theorems fixedpoints







share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Grace is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$




Let $f : [a,b] rightarrow [a,b]$ be a continuous function s.t. $f'(x)$ is defined on $(a,b)$ and $leftlvert f'(x)rightrvert leqq t$ where $0<t<1$. Prove that for any point $x_0$ in $[a,b]$ the sequence defined by $$ x_n=f(x_{n-1}), n>0$$
converges to one unique fixed point.



Attempt:
Frankly, I have struggled to make a real attempt due to the fact that I can't find notes relating to this.



Obviously, I am assuming that there exists $x$ in$ [a,b]$ s.t. $f(x)=x$ but how do I relate the sequence to this $x$?



I'm strictly not allowed to assume Banach's theorem in this question, nor the Cauchy sequence because they come up on the second part of the course. I rather have to PROVE this.






analysis convergence numerical-methods fixed-point-theorems fixedpoints




analysis convergence numerical-methods fixed-point-theorems fixedpoints






share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Grace is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




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share|cite|improve this question




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edited 4 hours ago







Grace













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asked 5 hours ago









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  • $begingroup$
    Another related question.
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_{n+1}$.
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    4 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer.
    $endgroup$
    – dantopa
    2 hours ago




















  • $begingroup$
    Another related question.
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_{n+1}$.
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    4 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer.
    $endgroup$
    – dantopa
    2 hours ago


















$begingroup$
Another related question.
$endgroup$
– rtybase
4 hours ago




$begingroup$
Another related question.
$endgroup$
– rtybase
4 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_{n+1}$.
$endgroup$
– rtybase
4 hours ago




$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of Contraction mapping in the context of $f(x_n)=x_{n+1}$.
$endgroup$
– rtybase
4 hours ago












$begingroup$
Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer.
$endgroup$
– dantopa
2 hours ago






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Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer.
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2 hours ago












3 Answers
3






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2












$begingroup$

The Mean Value Theorem tells you that the sequence ${x_n }$ is Cauchy because $|f(y)-f(x)| leq t|y-x|$. The space $[0, 1]$ is complete, so since the sequence is Cauchy, it must converge.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    This can be proved using the Banach Fixed Point Theorem.



    Intuitively, the BFPT tells us that if there is some function $F$ such that the distance between any two points $x$ and $y$ (when scaled by a constant $q$) is always larger than the distance between the corresponding images ($F(x)$ and $F(y)$), then the sequence
    $$x_n = F(x_{n-1}) $$
    will converge to a unique fixed point. For a more rigorous treatment of the BFPT statement: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Banach_fixed-point_theorem.



    Since in this case you know that
    $$|f'(x)| leq t $$
    This implies that



    $$Big|frac{f(x) - f(y)}{x - y}Big| leq t$$



    for all possible points $x,y in [a,b]$. Think about why this is the case (Hint: Use the mean value theorem).



    This implies that



    $$| f(x) - f(y)| < t |x-y| $$



    which is what the BFPT requires. From here, we can just apply the BFPT to state that there is a fixed point in $[a,b]$ for the sequence



    $$ x_n = f(x_{n-1})$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
      $endgroup$
      – Robert Shore
      4 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      @RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
      $endgroup$
      – Sean Lee
      4 hours ago



















    1












    $begingroup$

    To prove this from scratch note that by MVT $$|x_n-x_m| leq |x_{m+1}-x_m|+|x_{m+2}-x_{m+1}|$$ $$+cdots+|x_{n}-x_{n-1}|leq |x_{m+1}-x_m| (1+t+t^{2}+cdots+t^{n+m-1})$$ for $n >m$. Also $|x_{m+1}-x_m| leq t^{m-1} |x_2-x_1|$. Using the convergence of the geometric series $sum t^{n}$ conclude that ${x_n}$ is Cauchy. If $x =lim x_n$ then the definition of $x_n$'s and continuity of $f$ tells you that $f(x)=x$. Uniqueness follows easily by MVT.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

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      active

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      2












      $begingroup$

      The Mean Value Theorem tells you that the sequence ${x_n }$ is Cauchy because $|f(y)-f(x)| leq t|y-x|$. The space $[0, 1]$ is complete, so since the sequence is Cauchy, it must converge.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$


















        2












        $begingroup$

        The Mean Value Theorem tells you that the sequence ${x_n }$ is Cauchy because $|f(y)-f(x)| leq t|y-x|$. The space $[0, 1]$ is complete, so since the sequence is Cauchy, it must converge.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$
















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          The Mean Value Theorem tells you that the sequence ${x_n }$ is Cauchy because $|f(y)-f(x)| leq t|y-x|$. The space $[0, 1]$ is complete, so since the sequence is Cauchy, it must converge.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          The Mean Value Theorem tells you that the sequence ${x_n }$ is Cauchy because $|f(y)-f(x)| leq t|y-x|$. The space $[0, 1]$ is complete, so since the sequence is Cauchy, it must converge.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited 4 hours ago

























          answered 4 hours ago









          Robert ShoreRobert Shore

          2,044116




          2,044116























              1












              $begingroup$

              This can be proved using the Banach Fixed Point Theorem.



              Intuitively, the BFPT tells us that if there is some function $F$ such that the distance between any two points $x$ and $y$ (when scaled by a constant $q$) is always larger than the distance between the corresponding images ($F(x)$ and $F(y)$), then the sequence
              $$x_n = F(x_{n-1}) $$
              will converge to a unique fixed point. For a more rigorous treatment of the BFPT statement: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Banach_fixed-point_theorem.



              Since in this case you know that
              $$|f'(x)| leq t $$
              This implies that



              $$Big|frac{f(x) - f(y)}{x - y}Big| leq t$$



              for all possible points $x,y in [a,b]$. Think about why this is the case (Hint: Use the mean value theorem).



              This implies that



              $$| f(x) - f(y)| < t |x-y| $$



              which is what the BFPT requires. From here, we can just apply the BFPT to state that there is a fixed point in $[a,b]$ for the sequence



              $$ x_n = f(x_{n-1})$$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
                $endgroup$
                – Robert Shore
                4 hours ago










              • $begingroup$
                @RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
                $endgroup$
                – Sean Lee
                4 hours ago
















              1












              $begingroup$

              This can be proved using the Banach Fixed Point Theorem.



              Intuitively, the BFPT tells us that if there is some function $F$ such that the distance between any two points $x$ and $y$ (when scaled by a constant $q$) is always larger than the distance between the corresponding images ($F(x)$ and $F(y)$), then the sequence
              $$x_n = F(x_{n-1}) $$
              will converge to a unique fixed point. For a more rigorous treatment of the BFPT statement: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Banach_fixed-point_theorem.



              Since in this case you know that
              $$|f'(x)| leq t $$
              This implies that



              $$Big|frac{f(x) - f(y)}{x - y}Big| leq t$$



              for all possible points $x,y in [a,b]$. Think about why this is the case (Hint: Use the mean value theorem).



              This implies that



              $$| f(x) - f(y)| < t |x-y| $$



              which is what the BFPT requires. From here, we can just apply the BFPT to state that there is a fixed point in $[a,b]$ for the sequence



              $$ x_n = f(x_{n-1})$$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
                $endgroup$
                – Robert Shore
                4 hours ago










              • $begingroup$
                @RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
                $endgroup$
                – Sean Lee
                4 hours ago














              1












              1








              1





              $begingroup$

              This can be proved using the Banach Fixed Point Theorem.



              Intuitively, the BFPT tells us that if there is some function $F$ such that the distance between any two points $x$ and $y$ (when scaled by a constant $q$) is always larger than the distance between the corresponding images ($F(x)$ and $F(y)$), then the sequence
              $$x_n = F(x_{n-1}) $$
              will converge to a unique fixed point. For a more rigorous treatment of the BFPT statement: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Banach_fixed-point_theorem.



              Since in this case you know that
              $$|f'(x)| leq t $$
              This implies that



              $$Big|frac{f(x) - f(y)}{x - y}Big| leq t$$



              for all possible points $x,y in [a,b]$. Think about why this is the case (Hint: Use the mean value theorem).



              This implies that



              $$| f(x) - f(y)| < t |x-y| $$



              which is what the BFPT requires. From here, we can just apply the BFPT to state that there is a fixed point in $[a,b]$ for the sequence



              $$ x_n = f(x_{n-1})$$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              This can be proved using the Banach Fixed Point Theorem.



              Intuitively, the BFPT tells us that if there is some function $F$ such that the distance between any two points $x$ and $y$ (when scaled by a constant $q$) is always larger than the distance between the corresponding images ($F(x)$ and $F(y)$), then the sequence
              $$x_n = F(x_{n-1}) $$
              will converge to a unique fixed point. For a more rigorous treatment of the BFPT statement: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Banach_fixed-point_theorem.



              Since in this case you know that
              $$|f'(x)| leq t $$
              This implies that



              $$Big|frac{f(x) - f(y)}{x - y}Big| leq t$$



              for all possible points $x,y in [a,b]$. Think about why this is the case (Hint: Use the mean value theorem).



              This implies that



              $$| f(x) - f(y)| < t |x-y| $$



              which is what the BFPT requires. From here, we can just apply the BFPT to state that there is a fixed point in $[a,b]$ for the sequence



              $$ x_n = f(x_{n-1})$$







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered 4 hours ago









              Sean LeeSean Lee

              483211




              483211












              • $begingroup$
                Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
                $endgroup$
                – Robert Shore
                4 hours ago










              • $begingroup$
                @RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
                $endgroup$
                – Sean Lee
                4 hours ago


















              • $begingroup$
                Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
                $endgroup$
                – Robert Shore
                4 hours ago










              • $begingroup$
                @RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
                $endgroup$
                – Sean Lee
                4 hours ago
















              $begingroup$
              Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Shore
              4 hours ago




              $begingroup$
              Should probably expressly mention that the space $[0, 1]$ is complete, since that is a necessary condition for the Banach fixed point theorem to hold. For an easy counterexample demonstrating that you need completeness, consider $f(x) = x/2$ on $(0, 1]$.
              $endgroup$
              – Robert Shore
              4 hours ago












              $begingroup$
              @RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
              $endgroup$
              – Sean Lee
              4 hours ago




              $begingroup$
              @RobertShore Yes, you are right, thanks!
              $endgroup$
              – Sean Lee
              4 hours ago











              1












              $begingroup$

              To prove this from scratch note that by MVT $$|x_n-x_m| leq |x_{m+1}-x_m|+|x_{m+2}-x_{m+1}|$$ $$+cdots+|x_{n}-x_{n-1}|leq |x_{m+1}-x_m| (1+t+t^{2}+cdots+t^{n+m-1})$$ for $n >m$. Also $|x_{m+1}-x_m| leq t^{m-1} |x_2-x_1|$. Using the convergence of the geometric series $sum t^{n}$ conclude that ${x_n}$ is Cauchy. If $x =lim x_n$ then the definition of $x_n$'s and continuity of $f$ tells you that $f(x)=x$. Uniqueness follows easily by MVT.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                To prove this from scratch note that by MVT $$|x_n-x_m| leq |x_{m+1}-x_m|+|x_{m+2}-x_{m+1}|$$ $$+cdots+|x_{n}-x_{n-1}|leq |x_{m+1}-x_m| (1+t+t^{2}+cdots+t^{n+m-1})$$ for $n >m$. Also $|x_{m+1}-x_m| leq t^{m-1} |x_2-x_1|$. Using the convergence of the geometric series $sum t^{n}$ conclude that ${x_n}$ is Cauchy. If $x =lim x_n$ then the definition of $x_n$'s and continuity of $f$ tells you that $f(x)=x$. Uniqueness follows easily by MVT.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  To prove this from scratch note that by MVT $$|x_n-x_m| leq |x_{m+1}-x_m|+|x_{m+2}-x_{m+1}|$$ $$+cdots+|x_{n}-x_{n-1}|leq |x_{m+1}-x_m| (1+t+t^{2}+cdots+t^{n+m-1})$$ for $n >m$. Also $|x_{m+1}-x_m| leq t^{m-1} |x_2-x_1|$. Using the convergence of the geometric series $sum t^{n}$ conclude that ${x_n}$ is Cauchy. If $x =lim x_n$ then the definition of $x_n$'s and continuity of $f$ tells you that $f(x)=x$. Uniqueness follows easily by MVT.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  To prove this from scratch note that by MVT $$|x_n-x_m| leq |x_{m+1}-x_m|+|x_{m+2}-x_{m+1}|$$ $$+cdots+|x_{n}-x_{n-1}|leq |x_{m+1}-x_m| (1+t+t^{2}+cdots+t^{n+m-1})$$ for $n >m$. Also $|x_{m+1}-x_m| leq t^{m-1} |x_2-x_1|$. Using the convergence of the geometric series $sum t^{n}$ conclude that ${x_n}$ is Cauchy. If $x =lim x_n$ then the definition of $x_n$'s and continuity of $f$ tells you that $f(x)=x$. Uniqueness follows easily by MVT.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 3 hours ago









                  Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

                  65k42766




                  65k42766






















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                      Ponta tanko

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                      Usona ponta tanko M60A1 Ponta tanko estas, simile kiel kirasita savveturilo, inter specialaj kirasitaj transportiloj. Kiel pontaj tankoj eblas konsideri ĉiujn memmovigaj rimedoj ebligantaj superi obstaklojn ĝis larĝeco 24 metroj rekte en spaco de bataloperacoj. Ties ĉefa tasko estas ebligi al la propraj taĉmentoj daŭrigi en rapida antaŭenirado sen senbezona reteniĝo. El tio pli-malpli rezultas taktikaj-teknikaj postuloj, kiujn ili devas plenumi. Precipe temas pri kapablo operacii komune kun unue-sinsekvaj taĉmentoj kaj transpontigi obstaklojn dum kelke da minutoj. This page is only for reference, If you need detailed information, please check here
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                      Tantalo (mitologio)

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                      Ĉi tiu artikolo temas pri mitologio. Por aliaj signifoj vidu la paĝon Tantalo (apartigilo) . Tantalo , laŭ Gioacchino Assereto. Laŭ la helena mitologio, Tantalo (el la greka Τάνταλος , ŝancelanta aŭ tre malfeliĉa ) estis filo de Zeŭso kaj la oceanidino Pluto, laŭ la plej divastigata versio. Li estis reĝo de Frigio [1] aŭ de la monto Sipilo, en Lidio (Malgrandazio) [2] kaj post sia morto li suferis eternan torturadon ĉe la Tartaro, la plej profunda parto de Hadeso, rezervita por la plej perversaj homoj. Tamen, kelkaj rakontoj asertas ke li estis reĝo de Argo aŭ de Korinto [3] , aŭ ke li migris norden el la monto Sipilo por akiri la tronon de Paflagonio, el kie Ilo forpelis lin pro tio, ke Tantalo forkaptis kaj seksperfortis lian fraton Ganimedon [4] , kaj tiel ofendis la diojn. Verŝajne li ankaŭ regis urbon en okcidenta Anatolio, kiun oni nomis Tantalis [5] pro li, aŭ Sipilo , pro la monto sur kies flanko ankoraŭ staras ĝiaj ruinaĵoj [6] . Laŭ la geografiisto Strabo,...
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                      Erzsébet Schaár

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                      Erzsébet Schaár Memportreto de Erzsébet Schaár en Pécs Personaj informoj Naskiĝo 27-an de julio 1908 ( 1908-07-27 ) en Budafok Morto 29-an de aŭgusto 1975 ( 1975-08-29 ) (67-jara) en Budapeŝto Ŝtataneco Hungario Profesio skulptisto Familianoj Edz(in)o Tibor Vilt v   •   d   •   r Erzsébet Schaár [erĵEbet ŝAr], laŭ hungarlingve kutima sinsekvo Schaár Erzsébet estis hungara skulptisto. Ŝia edzo estis Tibor Vilt. Déryné Széppataki Róza en Miskolc fare de Erzsébet Schaár Erzsébet Schaár [1] naskiĝis la 27-an de julio 1908 en Budafok, ŝi mortis la 29-an de aŭgusto 1975 en Budapeŝto. Enhavo 1 Biografio 2 Elektitaj solaj ekspozicioj 3 Elektitaj kolektivaj ekspozicioj 4 Elektitaj skulptaĵoj 5 Elektitaj disĉiploj 6 Fontoj 7 Referencoj Biografio | Erzsébet Schaár studis en Industriarta Lernejo, poste en Reĝa Belarta Altlernejo (1924-1926). Ŝia ĉefinstruisto estis Zsig...
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