Why do some words that are not inflected have an umlaut?












1















Umlaut marks are usually used to show that an inflection has occurred, that is the umlaut is a synchronic change. But some words with an umlauted character, such as Ärger, Hälfte, Käse, Lärm, März, Rätsel, Träne are not inflected forms of something else, so why do they have umlaut spellings?



Duden says that Bär was originally spelt with an e:




mittelhochdeutsch ber, althochdeutsch bero, eigentlich = der Braune, verhüllend Bezeichnung




but I don't think the "eigentlich = der Braune" explains the ä.



Ärger comes from ärgern




mittelhochdeutsch ergern, argern, althochdeutsch argerōn, gebildet zum Komparativ von arg und eigentlich = ärger, schlechter machen




Here the ä can be traced back to an inflected form (in this case a comparative) but it not clear when the spelling was changed from e.



So, even when umlauts are not indicating inflections in Modern German, it is clear that they do not all have the same explanation. So my question is:




Looking at umlauts that are not simply inflections, what are the various explanations, and when did these changes occur?











share|improve this question























  • Umlaut marks are usually used to show that an indirection has occurred, ... Is this your observation or do you have a source for this rule (of thumbs)? If so, would you please provide a link?

    – Arsak
    12 mins ago
















1















Umlaut marks are usually used to show that an inflection has occurred, that is the umlaut is a synchronic change. But some words with an umlauted character, such as Ärger, Hälfte, Käse, Lärm, März, Rätsel, Träne are not inflected forms of something else, so why do they have umlaut spellings?



Duden says that Bär was originally spelt with an e:




mittelhochdeutsch ber, althochdeutsch bero, eigentlich = der Braune, verhüllend Bezeichnung




but I don't think the "eigentlich = der Braune" explains the ä.



Ärger comes from ärgern




mittelhochdeutsch ergern, argern, althochdeutsch argerōn, gebildet zum Komparativ von arg und eigentlich = ärger, schlechter machen




Here the ä can be traced back to an inflected form (in this case a comparative) but it not clear when the spelling was changed from e.



So, even when umlauts are not indicating inflections in Modern German, it is clear that they do not all have the same explanation. So my question is:




Looking at umlauts that are not simply inflections, what are the various explanations, and when did these changes occur?











share|improve this question























  • Umlaut marks are usually used to show that an indirection has occurred, ... Is this your observation or do you have a source for this rule (of thumbs)? If so, would you please provide a link?

    – Arsak
    12 mins ago














1












1








1








Umlaut marks are usually used to show that an inflection has occurred, that is the umlaut is a synchronic change. But some words with an umlauted character, such as Ärger, Hälfte, Käse, Lärm, März, Rätsel, Träne are not inflected forms of something else, so why do they have umlaut spellings?



Duden says that Bär was originally spelt with an e:




mittelhochdeutsch ber, althochdeutsch bero, eigentlich = der Braune, verhüllend Bezeichnung




but I don't think the "eigentlich = der Braune" explains the ä.



Ärger comes from ärgern




mittelhochdeutsch ergern, argern, althochdeutsch argerōn, gebildet zum Komparativ von arg und eigentlich = ärger, schlechter machen




Here the ä can be traced back to an inflected form (in this case a comparative) but it not clear when the spelling was changed from e.



So, even when umlauts are not indicating inflections in Modern German, it is clear that they do not all have the same explanation. So my question is:




Looking at umlauts that are not simply inflections, what are the various explanations, and when did these changes occur?











share|improve this question














Umlaut marks are usually used to show that an inflection has occurred, that is the umlaut is a synchronic change. But some words with an umlauted character, such as Ärger, Hälfte, Käse, Lärm, März, Rätsel, Träne are not inflected forms of something else, so why do they have umlaut spellings?



Duden says that Bär was originally spelt with an e:




mittelhochdeutsch ber, althochdeutsch bero, eigentlich = der Braune, verhüllend Bezeichnung




but I don't think the "eigentlich = der Braune" explains the ä.



Ärger comes from ärgern




mittelhochdeutsch ergern, argern, althochdeutsch argerōn, gebildet zum Komparativ von arg und eigentlich = ärger, schlechter machen




Here the ä can be traced back to an inflected form (in this case a comparative) but it not clear when the spelling was changed from e.



So, even when umlauts are not indicating inflections in Modern German, it is clear that they do not all have the same explanation. So my question is:




Looking at umlauts that are not simply inflections, what are the various explanations, and when did these changes occur?








etymology spelling umlaut middle-high-german old-high-german






share|improve this question













share|improve this question











share|improve this question




share|improve this question










asked 7 hours ago









David RobinsonDavid Robinson

4607




4607













  • Umlaut marks are usually used to show that an indirection has occurred, ... Is this your observation or do you have a source for this rule (of thumbs)? If so, would you please provide a link?

    – Arsak
    12 mins ago



















  • Umlaut marks are usually used to show that an indirection has occurred, ... Is this your observation or do you have a source for this rule (of thumbs)? If so, would you please provide a link?

    – Arsak
    12 mins ago

















Umlaut marks are usually used to show that an indirection has occurred, ... Is this your observation or do you have a source for this rule (of thumbs)? If so, would you please provide a link?

– Arsak
12 mins ago





Umlaut marks are usually used to show that an indirection has occurred, ... Is this your observation or do you have a source for this rule (of thumbs)? If so, would you please provide a link?

– Arsak
12 mins ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















2














In most of your examples the vowel ä is an actual Umlaut, i.e. a changed vowel a or ā:





  1. Ärger relates to arg, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Ärger


  2. Hälfte relates to halb, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Hälfte


  3. Träne stems from Middle High German trān, Germanic *trahnu-, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Träne


  4. Käse stems from Latin cāseus, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Käse


  5. Lärm stems from Alarm, Italian all’arme ("to the weapons"), https://www.dwds.de/wb/Lärm


So your hypothesis that the vowel ä indicates inflection, is just a part of the truth. It seems to indicate that the word stem has been a in earlier stages of the word.



The exception Bär remains though. A hypothesis: Maybe the Umlaut indicates that the vowel has been long in Middle High German and is still long?



At least, other words with the morpheme ber- seem to have the short vowel nowadays:




  • Berkelium

  • Berlin

  • Bermuda

  • Berlocke

  • Berme

  • Bern

  • Berserker

  • bersten

  • Bertha






share|improve this answer































    1














    I seriously doubt your premise of Umlaut marks. These two dots have been strokes before, which is simply Kurrent handwriting of the letter e. Older printed texts have an actual tiny e printed on top of a, u, o. And this is common practice even today: if no Umlaute are available on your computer, you should write ae, oe, ue instead.



    These are just five additional vowels German has (short ä is identical to short e). Or diphthongs, whatever you like.



    The sound changes in inflection and conjugation aren't special to the Umlaute, it's a general pattern and called Ablaut. This was already present in Proto-Indo-European.



    You can see this in German where no Umlaute are involved:




    rufen, er ruft, er rief



    saufen, er säuft, er soff



    bieten, er bietet, er bot







    share|improve this answer





















    • 1





      This seems to be a comment. As in English there are several Ablaute, as shown in sprechen, spricht, sprach, gesprochen. But one of these Ablaute is the set of sound changes that is typically associated with plurals, comparatives and a few other things. So whereas most of your examples are spelt phonetically, säuft is spelt using "Stammschreibung", that is, the au is retained with an extra mark (originally e, then ◌ͤ, then ¨). My point is that Bär does appear to come from *Bar or anything like it and Ärger relates to no modern word with a. This is what I am asking about.

      – David Robinson
      6 hours ago











    • The adjective arg is used in modern German, but not in all dialects and codes.

      – Janka
      5 hours ago











    • Bär is special because the ä-r is pronounced as Schwa-Tiefschwa.

      – Janka
      5 hours ago



















    1















    Umlaut marks are usually used to show that an inflection has occurred, that is the umlaut is a synchronic change.




    Umlauted vowels are less common than unumlauted vowels, but I think it's going too far to say that they are "usually" used to show inflection. The front rounded vowel sounds /yː/, /ʏ/, /øː/, /œ/ are regularly written with ü and ö in German, and they don't only occur in inflected forms of words with a base form in u or o. For example, the prepositions über and für are not inflected forms, and the verb stören doesn't have o in any of its inflected forms. Historically, these sounds derive in most cases from the phonetic process called umlaut, which seems to have been active at some point before the "Middle High German" period. You can find more information about the evolution of German vowels over time on the following web page: German vowels over time (by Helmut Richter). Ablaut is a separate and much older type of vowel alternation.



    In fact, all of your examples are with ä. The situation with ä is more complicated because, unlike ü and ö, it doesn't always represent a distinct sound of its own in the spelling of German words. It represents the same sound as the letter e in at least some cases. (The details vary depending on the word and the speaker.) So it is true in general to say that ä specifically is only used in modern spelling in words that are related in some way to words spelled with a. But the relationship does not have to be a matter of inflection: ä is also used in the spelling of some derived words. More details can be found in the answers to this Linguistics SE question: What was the original pronunciation of 'ä' in German?






    share|improve this answer


























      Your Answer








      StackExchange.ready(function() {
      var channelOptions = {
      tags: "".split(" "),
      id: "253"
      };
      initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

      StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
      // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
      if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
      StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
      createEditor();
      });
      }
      else {
      createEditor();
      }
      });

      function createEditor() {
      StackExchange.prepareEditor({
      heartbeatType: 'answer',
      autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
      convertImagesToLinks: false,
      noModals: true,
      showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
      reputationToPostImages: null,
      bindNavPrevention: true,
      postfix: "",
      imageUploader: {
      brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
      contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
      allowUrls: true
      },
      noCode: true, onDemand: true,
      discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
      ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
      });


      }
      });














      draft saved

      draft discarded


















      StackExchange.ready(
      function () {
      StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fgerman.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f50609%2fwhy-do-some-words-that-are-not-inflected-have-an-umlaut%23new-answer', 'question_page');
      }
      );

      Post as a guest















      Required, but never shown

























      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      2














      In most of your examples the vowel ä is an actual Umlaut, i.e. a changed vowel a or ā:





      1. Ärger relates to arg, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Ärger


      2. Hälfte relates to halb, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Hälfte


      3. Träne stems from Middle High German trān, Germanic *trahnu-, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Träne


      4. Käse stems from Latin cāseus, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Käse


      5. Lärm stems from Alarm, Italian all’arme ("to the weapons"), https://www.dwds.de/wb/Lärm


      So your hypothesis that the vowel ä indicates inflection, is just a part of the truth. It seems to indicate that the word stem has been a in earlier stages of the word.



      The exception Bär remains though. A hypothesis: Maybe the Umlaut indicates that the vowel has been long in Middle High German and is still long?



      At least, other words with the morpheme ber- seem to have the short vowel nowadays:




      • Berkelium

      • Berlin

      • Bermuda

      • Berlocke

      • Berme

      • Bern

      • Berserker

      • bersten

      • Bertha






      share|improve this answer




























        2














        In most of your examples the vowel ä is an actual Umlaut, i.e. a changed vowel a or ā:





        1. Ärger relates to arg, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Ärger


        2. Hälfte relates to halb, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Hälfte


        3. Träne stems from Middle High German trān, Germanic *trahnu-, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Träne


        4. Käse stems from Latin cāseus, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Käse


        5. Lärm stems from Alarm, Italian all’arme ("to the weapons"), https://www.dwds.de/wb/Lärm


        So your hypothesis that the vowel ä indicates inflection, is just a part of the truth. It seems to indicate that the word stem has been a in earlier stages of the word.



        The exception Bär remains though. A hypothesis: Maybe the Umlaut indicates that the vowel has been long in Middle High German and is still long?



        At least, other words with the morpheme ber- seem to have the short vowel nowadays:




        • Berkelium

        • Berlin

        • Bermuda

        • Berlocke

        • Berme

        • Bern

        • Berserker

        • bersten

        • Bertha






        share|improve this answer


























          2












          2








          2







          In most of your examples the vowel ä is an actual Umlaut, i.e. a changed vowel a or ā:





          1. Ärger relates to arg, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Ärger


          2. Hälfte relates to halb, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Hälfte


          3. Träne stems from Middle High German trān, Germanic *trahnu-, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Träne


          4. Käse stems from Latin cāseus, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Käse


          5. Lärm stems from Alarm, Italian all’arme ("to the weapons"), https://www.dwds.de/wb/Lärm


          So your hypothesis that the vowel ä indicates inflection, is just a part of the truth. It seems to indicate that the word stem has been a in earlier stages of the word.



          The exception Bär remains though. A hypothesis: Maybe the Umlaut indicates that the vowel has been long in Middle High German and is still long?



          At least, other words with the morpheme ber- seem to have the short vowel nowadays:




          • Berkelium

          • Berlin

          • Bermuda

          • Berlocke

          • Berme

          • Bern

          • Berserker

          • bersten

          • Bertha






          share|improve this answer













          In most of your examples the vowel ä is an actual Umlaut, i.e. a changed vowel a or ā:





          1. Ärger relates to arg, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Ärger


          2. Hälfte relates to halb, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Hälfte


          3. Träne stems from Middle High German trān, Germanic *trahnu-, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Träne


          4. Käse stems from Latin cāseus, https://www.dwds.de/wb/Käse


          5. Lärm stems from Alarm, Italian all’arme ("to the weapons"), https://www.dwds.de/wb/Lärm


          So your hypothesis that the vowel ä indicates inflection, is just a part of the truth. It seems to indicate that the word stem has been a in earlier stages of the word.



          The exception Bär remains though. A hypothesis: Maybe the Umlaut indicates that the vowel has been long in Middle High German and is still long?



          At least, other words with the morpheme ber- seem to have the short vowel nowadays:




          • Berkelium

          • Berlin

          • Bermuda

          • Berlocke

          • Berme

          • Bern

          • Berserker

          • bersten

          • Bertha







          share|improve this answer












          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer










          answered 3 hours ago









          jonathan.scholbachjonathan.scholbach

          5,1741231




          5,1741231























              1














              I seriously doubt your premise of Umlaut marks. These two dots have been strokes before, which is simply Kurrent handwriting of the letter e. Older printed texts have an actual tiny e printed on top of a, u, o. And this is common practice even today: if no Umlaute are available on your computer, you should write ae, oe, ue instead.



              These are just five additional vowels German has (short ä is identical to short e). Or diphthongs, whatever you like.



              The sound changes in inflection and conjugation aren't special to the Umlaute, it's a general pattern and called Ablaut. This was already present in Proto-Indo-European.



              You can see this in German where no Umlaute are involved:




              rufen, er ruft, er rief



              saufen, er säuft, er soff



              bieten, er bietet, er bot







              share|improve this answer





















              • 1





                This seems to be a comment. As in English there are several Ablaute, as shown in sprechen, spricht, sprach, gesprochen. But one of these Ablaute is the set of sound changes that is typically associated with plurals, comparatives and a few other things. So whereas most of your examples are spelt phonetically, säuft is spelt using "Stammschreibung", that is, the au is retained with an extra mark (originally e, then ◌ͤ, then ¨). My point is that Bär does appear to come from *Bar or anything like it and Ärger relates to no modern word with a. This is what I am asking about.

                – David Robinson
                6 hours ago











              • The adjective arg is used in modern German, but not in all dialects and codes.

                – Janka
                5 hours ago











              • Bär is special because the ä-r is pronounced as Schwa-Tiefschwa.

                – Janka
                5 hours ago
















              1














              I seriously doubt your premise of Umlaut marks. These two dots have been strokes before, which is simply Kurrent handwriting of the letter e. Older printed texts have an actual tiny e printed on top of a, u, o. And this is common practice even today: if no Umlaute are available on your computer, you should write ae, oe, ue instead.



              These are just five additional vowels German has (short ä is identical to short e). Or diphthongs, whatever you like.



              The sound changes in inflection and conjugation aren't special to the Umlaute, it's a general pattern and called Ablaut. This was already present in Proto-Indo-European.



              You can see this in German where no Umlaute are involved:




              rufen, er ruft, er rief



              saufen, er säuft, er soff



              bieten, er bietet, er bot







              share|improve this answer





















              • 1





                This seems to be a comment. As in English there are several Ablaute, as shown in sprechen, spricht, sprach, gesprochen. But one of these Ablaute is the set of sound changes that is typically associated with plurals, comparatives and a few other things. So whereas most of your examples are spelt phonetically, säuft is spelt using "Stammschreibung", that is, the au is retained with an extra mark (originally e, then ◌ͤ, then ¨). My point is that Bär does appear to come from *Bar or anything like it and Ärger relates to no modern word with a. This is what I am asking about.

                – David Robinson
                6 hours ago











              • The adjective arg is used in modern German, but not in all dialects and codes.

                – Janka
                5 hours ago











              • Bär is special because the ä-r is pronounced as Schwa-Tiefschwa.

                – Janka
                5 hours ago














              1












              1








              1







              I seriously doubt your premise of Umlaut marks. These two dots have been strokes before, which is simply Kurrent handwriting of the letter e. Older printed texts have an actual tiny e printed on top of a, u, o. And this is common practice even today: if no Umlaute are available on your computer, you should write ae, oe, ue instead.



              These are just five additional vowels German has (short ä is identical to short e). Or diphthongs, whatever you like.



              The sound changes in inflection and conjugation aren't special to the Umlaute, it's a general pattern and called Ablaut. This was already present in Proto-Indo-European.



              You can see this in German where no Umlaute are involved:




              rufen, er ruft, er rief



              saufen, er säuft, er soff



              bieten, er bietet, er bot







              share|improve this answer















              I seriously doubt your premise of Umlaut marks. These two dots have been strokes before, which is simply Kurrent handwriting of the letter e. Older printed texts have an actual tiny e printed on top of a, u, o. And this is common practice even today: if no Umlaute are available on your computer, you should write ae, oe, ue instead.



              These are just five additional vowels German has (short ä is identical to short e). Or diphthongs, whatever you like.



              The sound changes in inflection and conjugation aren't special to the Umlaute, it's a general pattern and called Ablaut. This was already present in Proto-Indo-European.



              You can see this in German where no Umlaute are involved:




              rufen, er ruft, er rief



              saufen, er säuft, er soff



              bieten, er bietet, er bot








              share|improve this answer














              share|improve this answer



              share|improve this answer








              edited 6 hours ago

























              answered 6 hours ago









              JankaJanka

              33.1k22964




              33.1k22964








              • 1





                This seems to be a comment. As in English there are several Ablaute, as shown in sprechen, spricht, sprach, gesprochen. But one of these Ablaute is the set of sound changes that is typically associated with plurals, comparatives and a few other things. So whereas most of your examples are spelt phonetically, säuft is spelt using "Stammschreibung", that is, the au is retained with an extra mark (originally e, then ◌ͤ, then ¨). My point is that Bär does appear to come from *Bar or anything like it and Ärger relates to no modern word with a. This is what I am asking about.

                – David Robinson
                6 hours ago











              • The adjective arg is used in modern German, but not in all dialects and codes.

                – Janka
                5 hours ago











              • Bär is special because the ä-r is pronounced as Schwa-Tiefschwa.

                – Janka
                5 hours ago














              • 1





                This seems to be a comment. As in English there are several Ablaute, as shown in sprechen, spricht, sprach, gesprochen. But one of these Ablaute is the set of sound changes that is typically associated with plurals, comparatives and a few other things. So whereas most of your examples are spelt phonetically, säuft is spelt using "Stammschreibung", that is, the au is retained with an extra mark (originally e, then ◌ͤ, then ¨). My point is that Bär does appear to come from *Bar or anything like it and Ärger relates to no modern word with a. This is what I am asking about.

                – David Robinson
                6 hours ago











              • The adjective arg is used in modern German, but not in all dialects and codes.

                – Janka
                5 hours ago











              • Bär is special because the ä-r is pronounced as Schwa-Tiefschwa.

                – Janka
                5 hours ago








              1




              1





              This seems to be a comment. As in English there are several Ablaute, as shown in sprechen, spricht, sprach, gesprochen. But one of these Ablaute is the set of sound changes that is typically associated with plurals, comparatives and a few other things. So whereas most of your examples are spelt phonetically, säuft is spelt using "Stammschreibung", that is, the au is retained with an extra mark (originally e, then ◌ͤ, then ¨). My point is that Bär does appear to come from *Bar or anything like it and Ärger relates to no modern word with a. This is what I am asking about.

              – David Robinson
              6 hours ago





              This seems to be a comment. As in English there are several Ablaute, as shown in sprechen, spricht, sprach, gesprochen. But one of these Ablaute is the set of sound changes that is typically associated with plurals, comparatives and a few other things. So whereas most of your examples are spelt phonetically, säuft is spelt using "Stammschreibung", that is, the au is retained with an extra mark (originally e, then ◌ͤ, then ¨). My point is that Bär does appear to come from *Bar or anything like it and Ärger relates to no modern word with a. This is what I am asking about.

              – David Robinson
              6 hours ago













              The adjective arg is used in modern German, but not in all dialects and codes.

              – Janka
              5 hours ago





              The adjective arg is used in modern German, but not in all dialects and codes.

              – Janka
              5 hours ago













              Bär is special because the ä-r is pronounced as Schwa-Tiefschwa.

              – Janka
              5 hours ago





              Bär is special because the ä-r is pronounced as Schwa-Tiefschwa.

              – Janka
              5 hours ago











              1















              Umlaut marks are usually used to show that an inflection has occurred, that is the umlaut is a synchronic change.




              Umlauted vowels are less common than unumlauted vowels, but I think it's going too far to say that they are "usually" used to show inflection. The front rounded vowel sounds /yː/, /ʏ/, /øː/, /œ/ are regularly written with ü and ö in German, and they don't only occur in inflected forms of words with a base form in u or o. For example, the prepositions über and für are not inflected forms, and the verb stören doesn't have o in any of its inflected forms. Historically, these sounds derive in most cases from the phonetic process called umlaut, which seems to have been active at some point before the "Middle High German" period. You can find more information about the evolution of German vowels over time on the following web page: German vowels over time (by Helmut Richter). Ablaut is a separate and much older type of vowel alternation.



              In fact, all of your examples are with ä. The situation with ä is more complicated because, unlike ü and ö, it doesn't always represent a distinct sound of its own in the spelling of German words. It represents the same sound as the letter e in at least some cases. (The details vary depending on the word and the speaker.) So it is true in general to say that ä specifically is only used in modern spelling in words that are related in some way to words spelled with a. But the relationship does not have to be a matter of inflection: ä is also used in the spelling of some derived words. More details can be found in the answers to this Linguistics SE question: What was the original pronunciation of 'ä' in German?






              share|improve this answer






























                1















                Umlaut marks are usually used to show that an inflection has occurred, that is the umlaut is a synchronic change.




                Umlauted vowels are less common than unumlauted vowels, but I think it's going too far to say that they are "usually" used to show inflection. The front rounded vowel sounds /yː/, /ʏ/, /øː/, /œ/ are regularly written with ü and ö in German, and they don't only occur in inflected forms of words with a base form in u or o. For example, the prepositions über and für are not inflected forms, and the verb stören doesn't have o in any of its inflected forms. Historically, these sounds derive in most cases from the phonetic process called umlaut, which seems to have been active at some point before the "Middle High German" period. You can find more information about the evolution of German vowels over time on the following web page: German vowels over time (by Helmut Richter). Ablaut is a separate and much older type of vowel alternation.



                In fact, all of your examples are with ä. The situation with ä is more complicated because, unlike ü and ö, it doesn't always represent a distinct sound of its own in the spelling of German words. It represents the same sound as the letter e in at least some cases. (The details vary depending on the word and the speaker.) So it is true in general to say that ä specifically is only used in modern spelling in words that are related in some way to words spelled with a. But the relationship does not have to be a matter of inflection: ä is also used in the spelling of some derived words. More details can be found in the answers to this Linguistics SE question: What was the original pronunciation of 'ä' in German?






                share|improve this answer




























                  1












                  1








                  1








                  Umlaut marks are usually used to show that an inflection has occurred, that is the umlaut is a synchronic change.




                  Umlauted vowels are less common than unumlauted vowels, but I think it's going too far to say that they are "usually" used to show inflection. The front rounded vowel sounds /yː/, /ʏ/, /øː/, /œ/ are regularly written with ü and ö in German, and they don't only occur in inflected forms of words with a base form in u or o. For example, the prepositions über and für are not inflected forms, and the verb stören doesn't have o in any of its inflected forms. Historically, these sounds derive in most cases from the phonetic process called umlaut, which seems to have been active at some point before the "Middle High German" period. You can find more information about the evolution of German vowels over time on the following web page: German vowels over time (by Helmut Richter). Ablaut is a separate and much older type of vowel alternation.



                  In fact, all of your examples are with ä. The situation with ä is more complicated because, unlike ü and ö, it doesn't always represent a distinct sound of its own in the spelling of German words. It represents the same sound as the letter e in at least some cases. (The details vary depending on the word and the speaker.) So it is true in general to say that ä specifically is only used in modern spelling in words that are related in some way to words spelled with a. But the relationship does not have to be a matter of inflection: ä is also used in the spelling of some derived words. More details can be found in the answers to this Linguistics SE question: What was the original pronunciation of 'ä' in German?






                  share|improve this answer
















                  Umlaut marks are usually used to show that an inflection has occurred, that is the umlaut is a synchronic change.




                  Umlauted vowels are less common than unumlauted vowels, but I think it's going too far to say that they are "usually" used to show inflection. The front rounded vowel sounds /yː/, /ʏ/, /øː/, /œ/ are regularly written with ü and ö in German, and they don't only occur in inflected forms of words with a base form in u or o. For example, the prepositions über and für are not inflected forms, and the verb stören doesn't have o in any of its inflected forms. Historically, these sounds derive in most cases from the phonetic process called umlaut, which seems to have been active at some point before the "Middle High German" period. You can find more information about the evolution of German vowels over time on the following web page: German vowels over time (by Helmut Richter). Ablaut is a separate and much older type of vowel alternation.



                  In fact, all of your examples are with ä. The situation with ä is more complicated because, unlike ü and ö, it doesn't always represent a distinct sound of its own in the spelling of German words. It represents the same sound as the letter e in at least some cases. (The details vary depending on the word and the speaker.) So it is true in general to say that ä specifically is only used in modern spelling in words that are related in some way to words spelled with a. But the relationship does not have to be a matter of inflection: ä is also used in the spelling of some derived words. More details can be found in the answers to this Linguistics SE question: What was the original pronunciation of 'ä' in German?







                  share|improve this answer














                  share|improve this answer



                  share|improve this answer








                  edited 48 mins ago

























                  answered 1 hour ago









                  sumelicsumelic

                  244111




                  244111






























                      draft saved

                      draft discarded




















































                      Thanks for contributing an answer to German Language Stack Exchange!


                      • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                      But avoid



                      • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                      • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


                      To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




                      draft saved


                      draft discarded














                      StackExchange.ready(
                      function () {
                      StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fgerman.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f50609%2fwhy-do-some-words-that-are-not-inflected-have-an-umlaut%23new-answer', 'question_page');
                      }
                      );

                      Post as a guest















                      Required, but never shown





















































                      Required, but never shown














                      Required, but never shown












                      Required, but never shown







                      Required, but never shown

































                      Required, but never shown














                      Required, but never shown












                      Required, but never shown







                      Required, but never shown







                      Popular posts from this blog

                      Ponta tanko

                      Tantalo (mitologio)

                      Erzsébet Schaár